G2B11
(A) [97.405]
What frequency should be used to send
a distress call?
A. Whatever frequency has the best chance
of communicating the distress message
B. Only frequencies
authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C. Only frequencies
that are within your operating privileges
D. Only frequencies
used by police, fire or emergency medical services
~~
G2B12 (C) [97.405(b)]
When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
A. Only when transmitting in RACES
B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net
C. At any time during an actual emergency
D. Only on authorized HF frequencies
~~
G2C
- CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals and common abbreviations: full break in
G2C01
(D)
Which of the following describes full break-in
telegraphy (QSK)?
A. Breaking stations send the Morse
code prosign BK
B. Automatic keyers are used to send
Morse code instead of hand keys
C. An operator must activate
a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
~~
G2C02
(A)
What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?
A. Send slower
B.
Change frequency
C. Increase your power
D. Repeat everything twice
~~
G2C03 (C)
What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?
A. Listening for novice stations
B. Operating full break-in
C.
Listening only for a specific station or stations
D.
Closing station now
~~
G2C04 (D)
What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?
A. Keep frequency clear
B. Operating full break-in
C. Listening only
for a specific station or stations
D. Closing station
~~
G2C05
(B)
What is the best speed to use answering a CQ
in Morse Code?
A. The fastest speed at which you are
comfortable copying
B. The speed at which the CQ was
sent
C. A slow speed until contact is established
D. 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed
~~
G2C06
(D)
What does the term “zero beat”
mean in CW operation?
A. Matching the speed of the transmitting
station
B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C. Sending without error
D. Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal.
~~
G2C07
(A)
When sending CW, what does a “C”
mean when added to the RST report?
A. Chirpy or unstable
signal
B. Report was read from S meter reading rather
than estimated
C. 100 percent copy
D. Key clicks
~~
G2C08 (C)
What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
A. SK
B. BK
C. AR
D.
KN
~~
G2C09 (C)
What
does the Q signal "QSL" mean?
A. Send slower
B. We have already confirmed by card
C. I acknowledge receipt
D.
We have worked before
~~
G2C10 (B)
What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean?
A. Slow down
B. Send faster
C.
Zero beat my signal
D. Quitting operation
~~
G2C11
(D)
What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?
A. You are sending too fast
B. There is interference on the frequency
C.
I am quitting for the day
D. I am ready to receive messages
~~
G2D - Amateur Auxiliary; minimizing interference; HF operations
G2D01
(A)
What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?
A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for
rules violations
B. Amateur volunteers who conduct
amateur licensing examinations
C. Amateur volunteers
who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
~~
G2D02
(B)
Which of the following are objectives of the
Amateur Auxiliary?
A. To conduct efficient and orderly
amateur licensing examinations
B. To encourage
amateur self regulation and compliance with the rules
C.
To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D. To provide emergency and public safety communications
~~
G2D03
(B)
What skills learned during “hidden transmitter
hunts” are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?
A.
Identification of out of band operation
B. Direction
finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C.
Identification of different call signs
D. Hunters
have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
~~
G2D04 (B)
Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
A. A world map that shows accurate land masses
B. A world map projection centered on a particular location
C. A world map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the
equator
D. A world map that shows the number of
degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
~~
G2D05
(B) [97.111(a)(1)]
When is it permissible to communicate
with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with
the FCC
B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country
except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted
in English
D. Only when the foreign country is a member
of the International Amateur Radio Union
~~
G2D06 (C)
How
is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?
A. Toward the rising Sun
B. Along the gray line
C.
180 degrees from its short-path heading
D. Toward the
north
~~
G2D07 (A) [97.303s]
Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60 meter band?
A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the
gain of your antenna
B. You must keep a log of the date,
time, frequency, power level and stations worked
C.
You must keep a log of all third party traffic
D. You
must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
~~
G2D08 (D)
Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn't require it?
A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without
retest
D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests
information
~~
G2D09 (D)
What
information is traditionally contained in a station log?
A.
Date and time of contact
B. Band and/or frequency of
the contact
C. Call sign of station contacted and
the signal report given
D. All of these choices
are correct
~~
G2D10 (B)
What is QRP operation?
A. Remote piloted model
control
B. Low power transmit operation
C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D. Traffic relay procedure net operation
~~
G2D11 (C)
Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna
B. An isotropic antenna
C.
A unidirectional antenna
D. An omnidirectional antenna
~~
G2E - Digital operating: procedures, procedural signals and common abbreviations
G2E01
(D)
Which mode is normally used when sending an
RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
A. USB
B. DSB
C.
CW
D. LSB
~~
G2E02
(A)
How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?
A. The number varies
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
~~
G2E03 (C)
What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?
A. Directory
B. Preamble
C. Header
D.
Footer
~~
G2E04 (B)
What segment of the 20 meter band is most often used for data transmissions?
A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B.
14.070 - 14.100 MHz
C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz
~~
G2E05 (C)
Which of the following describes Baudot code?
A. A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
B. A code using error detection and correction
C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
~~
G2E06 (B)
What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
A. 85 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 425 Hz
D.
850 Hz
~~
G2E07 (B)
What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for?
A.
Returning to you
B. Radioteletype
C. A general call to all digital stations
D. Repeater transmission type
~~
G2E08 (A)
What segment of the 80 meter band is most commonly used for data transmissions?
A. 3570 – 3600 kHz
B. 3500 – 3525 kHz
C. 3700 –
3750 kHz
D. 3775 – 3825 kHz
~~
G2E09
(D)
In what segment of the 20 meter band are most
PSK31 operations commonly found?
A. At the bottom of
the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B. At the top
of the SSB phone segment near 14.325 MHz
C. In the middle
of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D. Below the RTTY
segment, near 14.070 MHz
~~
G2E10 (D)
What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?
A. It is much higher speed than RTTY
B.
It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes
C.
It has built-in error correction
D. It offers good performance
in weak signal environments without error correction
~~
G2E11 (B)
What
does the abbreviation "MFSK" stand for?
A. Manual Frequency
Shift Keying
B. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying
C. Manual Frequency Sideband Keying
D. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying
~~
G2E12
(B)
How does the receiving station respond to an
ARQ data mode packet containing errors?
A. Terminates
the contact
B. Requests the packet be retransmitted
C. Sends the packet back to the transmitting station
D. Requests a change in transmitting protocol
~~
G2E13
(A)
In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an
NAK response to a transmitted packet?
A. The receiver
is requesting the packet be re-transmitted
B. The receiver
is reporting the packet was received without error
C.
The receiver is busy decoding the packet
D. The entire
file has been received correctly
~~
SUBELEMENT
G3 - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups]
G3A - Sunspots and solar radiation; ionospheric
disturbances; propagation forecasting and indices
G3A01 (A)
What is the sunspot number?
A. A measure of
solar activity based on counting sunspots and sunspot groups
B.
A 3 digit identifier which is used to track individual sunspots
C. A measure of the radio flux from the Sun measured at 10.7 cm
D. A measure of the sunspot count based on radio flux measurements
~~
G3A02
(B)
What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance
have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B.
It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
~~
G3A03
(C)
Approximately how long does it take the increased
ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
A. 28 days
B.
1 to 2 hours
C. 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours
~~
G3A04 (D)
Which of the following amateur radio HF frequencies are least reliable for long distance communications during periods
of low solar activity?
A. 3.5 MHz and lower
B. 7 MHz
C.
10 MHz
D. 21 MHz and higher
~~
G3A05
(D) [Modified}
What is the solar-flux index?
A. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation
between two points on the Earth
B. A count of sunspots
which is adjusted for solar emissions
C. Another name
for the American sunspot number
D. A measure of
solar radiation at 10.7 cm
~~
G3A06 (D)
What is a geomagnetic storm?
A. A sudden drop
in the solar-flux index
B. A thunderstorm which affects
radio propagation
C. Ripples in the ionosphere
D. A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
~~
G3A07
(D)
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20
meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
A. At the summer solstice
B. Only at
the maximum point of the solar cycle
C. Only at the minimum
point of the solar cycle
D. At any point in the solar
cycle
~~
G3A08 (B)
Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio-wave propagation?
A. Improved high-latitude HF propagation
B. Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
C.
Improved ground-wave propagation
D. Improved chances
of UHF ducting
~~
G3A09 (C)
What effect do high sunspot numbers have on radio communications?
A. High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
B. Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
C. Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
D. Microwave communications become unstable
~~
G3A10
(C)
What causes HF propagation conditions to vary
periodically in a 28-day cycle?
A. Long term oscillations
in the upper atmosphere
B. Cyclic variation in the Earth’s
radiation belts
C. The Sun’s rotation on its axis
D. The position of the Moon in its orbit
~~
G3A11
(D)
Approximately how long is the typical sunspot
cycle?
A. 8 minutes
B. 40 hours
C. 28 days
D. 11 years
~~
G3A12 (B)
What does the K-index indicate?
A. The relative
position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B. The
short term stability of the Earth’s magnetic field
C.
The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
D. The solar
radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
~~
G3A13 (C)
What does the A-index indicate?
A. The
relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B. The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
C. The long term stability of the Earth’s geomagnetic field
D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
~~
G3A14 (B)
How
are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?
A. HF communications are improved
B. HF communications are disturbed
C.
VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
~~
G3A15
(D)
How long does it take charged particles from
coronal mass ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
A. 28 days
B. 14 days
C. 4 to 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours
~~
G3A16 (A)
What
is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
A. Aurora that can reflect VHF signals
B. Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C. Improved HF long path propagation
D. Reduced long delayed echoes
~~
G3B - Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; propagation
G3B01
(D)
How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at
your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
A.
Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B. Signal
strength increased by 3 dB
C. The signal might
be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D. A well-defined
echo might be heard
~~
G3B02 (A)
Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6 meter band?
A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band
B. Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band
C. Severe attenuation of signals on the 10 meter band
D. Long delayed echoes on the 10 meter band
~~
G3B03
(A)
Which of the following applies when selecting
a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?
A.
Select a frequency just below the MUF
B. Select a frequency
just above the LUF
C. Select a frequency just below the
critical frequency
D. Select a frequency just above the
critical frequency
~~
G3B04 (A)
What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation
between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
A. Listen for signals from an international beacon
B. Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
C. Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
D. Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
~~
G3B05
(A)
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies
below the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and above the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?
A. They are bent back to the Earth
B. They pass through the ionosphere
C.
They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D.
They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
~~
G3B06 (C)
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Lowest Usable
Frequency (LUF)?
A. They are bent back to the Earth
B. They pass through the ionosphere
C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
~~
G3B07
(A)
What does LUF stand for?
A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D. The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
~~
G3B08
(B)
What does MUF stand for?
A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
~~
G3B09
(C)
What is the approximate maximum distance along the
Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
A. 180 miles
B. 1,200 miles
C. 2,500 miles
D.
12,000 miles
~~
G3B10 (B)
What
is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
A. 180 miles
B. 1,200 miles
C. 2,500 miles
D. 12,000 miles
~~
G3B11 (A)
What happens to HF propagation when the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) exceeds
the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
A. No HF radio frequency
will support ordinary skywave communications over the path
B.
HF communications over the path are enhanced
C. Double
hop propagation along the path is more common
D. Propagation
over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
~~
G3B12 (D)
What
factors affect the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
A.
Path distance and location
B. Time of day and season
C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G3C - Ionospheric layers; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; Near Vertical
Incidence Sky waves
G3C01 (A)
Which of
the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth?
A. The D layer
B. The E layer
C. The F1 layer
D. The F2 layer
~~
G3C02 (A)
Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?
A. Where the Sun is overhead
B.
Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C.
Where the Sun is rising
D. Where the Sun has just
set
~~
G3C03 (C)
Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave
propagation?
A. Because it is the densest ionospheric
layer
B. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much
as other ionospheric regions
C. Because it is the highest
ionospheric region
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G3C04
(D)
What does the term “critical angle” mean
as used in radio wave propagation?
A. The long path azimuth
of a distant station
B. The short path azimuth of a distant
station
C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return
a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
~~
G3C05
(C)
Why is long distance communication on the 40,
60, 80 and 160 meter bands more difficult during the day?
A.
The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B. The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
C. The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D. The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
~~
G3C06
(B)
What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
A. They have high intelligibility
B. They have a wavering sound
C.
They have very large swings in signal strength
D. All
of these choices are correct
~~
G3C07 (D)
What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
A. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
B.
Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
C. The
E-region is not present
D. Energy is scattered into the
skip zone through several different radio wave paths
~~
G3C08 (A)
Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
C. Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
D. Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
~~
G3C09
(B)
What type of radio wave propagation allows
a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
A. Faraday rotation
B. Scatter
C. Sporadic-E skip
D. Short-path skip
~~
G3C10 (D)
Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands
are being received via scatter propagation?
A. The communication
is during a sunspot maximum
B. The communication is during
a sudden ionospheric disturbance
C. The signal is heard
on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
D.
The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency
~~
G3C11 (B)
Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications
on 40 meters during the day?
A. Vertical antennas
B. Horizontal dipoles placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C. Left-hand circularly polarized antennas
D. Right-hand circularly polarized antenna
~~
G3C12
(D)
Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of
long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?
A. The F2 layer
B. The F1 layer
C. The E layer
D.
The D layer
~~
G3C13 (B)
What
is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?
A.
Propagation near the MUF
B. Short distance HF propagation
using high elevation angles
C. Long path HF propagation
at sunrise and sunset
D. Double hop propagation near
the LUF
~~
SUBELEMENT G4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions - 5 groups]
G4A
– Station Operation and set up
G4A01 (B)
What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
~~
G4A02
(C)
What is one advantage of selecting the opposite
or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?
A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D. Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
~~
G4A03
(C)
What is normally meant by operating a transceiver
in "split" mode?
A. The radio is operating at half power
B. The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D. The transmitter is emitting a SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
~~
G4A04
(B)
What reading on the plate current meter of
a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?
A. A pronounced peak
B.
A pronounced dip
C. No change will be observed
D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
~~
G4A05
(C)
What is a purpose of using Automatic Level
Control (ALC) with a RF power amplifier?
A. To balance
the transmitter audio frequency response
B. To reduce
harmonic radiation
C. To reduce distortion due to excessive
drive
D. To increase overall efficiency
~~
G4A06
(C)
What type of device is often used to enable
matching the transmitter output to an impedance other than 50 ohms?
A. Balanced modulator
B. SWR Bridge
C. Antenna coupler
D. Q Multiplier
~~
G4A07 (D)
What condition can lead to permanent damage when using a solid-state RF power amplifier?
A. Exceeding the Maximum Usable Frequency
B. Low input SWR
C. Shorting the
input signal to ground
D. Excessive drive power
~~
G4A08
(D)
What is the correct adjustment for the load
or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
A.
Minimum SWR on the antenna
B. Minimum plate current without
exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C. Highest plate
voltage while minimizing grid current
D. Maximum power
output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
~~
G4A09 (C)
Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?
A. To prevent stations from talking over each other
B. To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C. To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is
allowed
D. To allow time for a warning signal to be sent
to other stations
~~
G4A10 (B)
What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
A.
Automatic transmit/receive switching
B. Automatic generation
of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
C.
VOX operation
D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY
operation
~~
G4A11 (A)
Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?
A. To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
B. To change frequency rapidly
C. To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
D. To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
~~
G4A12
(C)
Which of the following is a common use for
the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?
A. To allow
transmitting on two frequencies at once
B. To permit
full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
C. To permit ease of monitoring the transmit and receive frequencies when they are not the same
D. To facilitate computer interface
~~
G4A13
(A)
What is one reason to use the attenuator function
that is present on many HF transceivers?
A. To reduce
signal overload due to strong incoming signals
B. To
reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C.
To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D.
To slow down received CW signals for better copy
~~
G4A14 (B)
How should the transceiver audio input be adjusted when transmitting PSK31 data signals?
A. So that the transceiver is at maximum rated output power
B. So that the transceiver ALC system does not activate
C. So that the transceiver operates at no more than 25% of rated power
D. So that the transceiver ALC indicator shows half scale
~~
G4B - Test and monitoring equipment; two-tone test
G4B01 (D)
What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
A. An ohmmeter
B.
A signal generator
C. An ammeter
D. An oscilloscope
~~
G4B02 (D)
Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
A. An oscilloscope uses less power
B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
C. Input impedance is much lower
D. Complex
waveforms can be measured
~~
G4B03 (A)
Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?
A. An oscilloscope
B. A field-strength meter
C. A sidetone monitor
D. A wavemeter
~~
G4B04 (D)
What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of
a transmitted signal?
A. The local oscillator of the
transmitter
B. An external RF oscillator
C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
~~
G4B05
(D)
Why is high input impedance desirable for a
voltmeter?
A. It improves the frequency response
B. It decreases battery consumption in the meter
C. It improves the resolution of the readings
D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
~~
G4B06
(C)
What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter
as compared to an analog voltmeter?
A. Better for measuring
computer circuits
B. Better for RF measurements
C. Better precision for most uses
D. Faster response
~~
G4B07 (A)
Which of the following might be a use for a field strength meter?
A. Close-in radio direction-finding
B.
A modulation monitor for a frequency or phase modulation transmitter
C. An overmodulation indicator for a SSB transmitter
D. A keying indicator for a RTTY or packet transmitter
~~
G4B08 (A)
Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output
when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
A. A
field-strength meter
B. An antenna noise bridge
C. A multimeter
D. A Q meter
~~
G4B09 (B)
Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?
A. The radiation resistance of an antenna
B. The radiation pattern of an antenna
C. The
presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
D.
The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
~~
G4B10 (A)
Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
A. Standing wave ratio
B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
C. RF
interference
D. Radio wave propagation
~~
G4B11
(C)
Which of the following must be connected to
an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?
A. Receiver
B. Transmitter
C. Antenna and feed line
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G4B12 (B)
What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an
antenna analyzer?
A. SWR readings may be incorrect
if the antenna is too close to the Earth
B. Strong signals
from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
C. The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
D. Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
~~
G4B13
(C)
What is a use for an antenna analyzer other
than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?
A.
Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
B. Measuring
the turns ratio of a power transformer
C. Determining
the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
D.
Determining the gain of a directional antenna
~~
G4B14 (D)
What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with
a numerical digital readout?
A. When testing logic circuits
B. When high precision is desired
C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D. When adjusting tuned circuits
~~
G4B15 (A)
What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
A. Linearity
B. Carrier
and undesired sideband suppression
C. Percentage of frequency
modulation
D. Percentage of carrier phase shift
~~
G4B16
(B)
What signals are used to conduct a two-tone
test?
A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted
90-degrees
B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C. Two swept frequency tones
D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
~~
G4C - Interference with consumer electronics; grounding; DSP
G4C01
(B)
Which of the following might be useful in reducing
RF interference to audio-frequency devices?
A. Bypass
inductor
B. Bypass capacitor
C. Forward-biased diode
D.
Reverse-biased diode
~~
G4C02 (C)
Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D. The use of horizontal rather than vertical antennas
~~
G4C03
(C)
What sound is heard from an audio device or
telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Distorted speech
D. Clearly audible speech
~~
G4C04
(A)
What is the effect on an audio device or telephone
system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?
A. On-and-off humming or clicking
B. A CW signal
at a nearly pure audio frequency
C. A chirpy CW signal
D. Severely distorted audio
~~
G4C05 (D)
What
might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the
equipment is connected to a ground rod?
A. Flat braid
rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B.
Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C. The
ground rod is resonant
D. The ground wire has high impedance
on that frequency
~~
G4C06 (C)
What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
A. Overheating of ground straps
B. Corrosion
of the ground rod
C. High RF voltages on the enclosures
of station equipment
D. A ground loop
~~
G4C07
(A)
What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects
of stray RF energy in an amateur station?
A. Connect
all equipment grounds together
B. Install an RF
filter in series with the ground wire
C. Use a ground
loop for best conductivity
D. Install a few ferrite
beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
~~
G4C08 (A)
Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
A. Placing a ferrite bead around the cable
B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors
C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
~~
G4C09 (D)
How can a ground loop be avoided?
A. Connect all ground conductors in series
B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D. Connect all ground conductors to a single point
~~
G4C10
(A)
What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere
in your station?
A. You receive reports of "hum" on your
station's transmitted signal
B. The SWR reading for one
or more antennas is suddenly very high
C. An item of
station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
~~
G4C11 (B)
Which of the following is one use for a Digital Signal Processor in an amateur
station?
A. To provide adequate grounding
B. To remove noise from received signals
C. To increase antenna gain
D. To increase antenna bandwidth
~~
G4C12 (A)
Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver Digital Signal Processor IF filter as compared to an analog
filter?
A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and
shapes can be created
B. Fewer digital components are
required
C. Mixing products are greatly reduced
D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
~~
G4C13
(B)
Which of the following can perform automatic
notching of interfering carriers?
A. Band-pass tuning
B. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
C. Balanced mixing
D.
A noise limiter
~~
G4D - Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges
G4D01
(A)
What is the purpose of a speech processor as
used in a modern transceiver?
A. Increase the intelligibility
of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B.
Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
C. Prevent distortion of voice signals
D.
Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
~~
G4D02 (B)
Which
of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?
A. It increases peak power
B. It increases average power
C. It reduces
harmonic distortion
D. It reduces intermodulation distortion
~~
G4D03
(D)
Which of the following can be the result of
an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
A. Distorted
speech
B. Splatter
C. Excessive background pickup
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G4D04 (C)
What
does an S meter measure?
A. Conductance
B. Impedance
C.
Received signal strength
D. Transmitter power output
~~
G4D05
(D)
How does an S meter reading of 20 dB over S-9
compare to an S-9 signal, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
A. It is 10 times weaker
B. It is 20 times weaker
C. It is 20 times stronger
D. It is 100 times stronger
~~
G4D06 (A)
Where is an S meter found?
A. In a receiver
B. In an SWR bridge
C. In a transmitter
D. In a conductance bridge
~~
G4D07
(C)
How much must the power output of a transmitter
be raised to change the S- meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
A. Approximately 1.5 times
B.
Approximately 2 times
C. Approximately 4 times
D. Approximately 8 times
~~
G4D08 (C)
What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier
frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
A. 7.178 to 7.181
MHz
B. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D.
7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
~~
G4D09 (B)
What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz
B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz
C. 14.344 to
14.347 MHz
D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
~~
G4D10
(A)
How close to the lower edge of the 40 meter
General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
A. 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B. 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C.
Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
D. Center your signal on the edge of the segment
~~
G4D11 (B)
How close to the upper edge of the 20 meter General Class band should your displayed
carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?
A.
3 kHz above the edge of the band
B. 3 kHz below the edge
of the band
C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be
set at the edge of the band
D. Center your signal on
the edge of the band
~~
G4E
- HF mobile radio installations; emergency and battery powered operation
G4E01 (C)
What is a "capacitance hat", when referring to a mobile antenna?
A. A device to increase the power handling capacity of a mobile whip antenna
B. A device that allows automatic band-changing for a mobile antenna
C. A device to electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D. A device that allows remote tuning of a mobile antenna
~~
G4E02
(D)
What is the purpose of a "corona ball" on a
HF mobile antenna?
A. To narrow the operating bandwidth
of the antenna
B. To increase the "Q" of the antenna
C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D. To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
~~
G4E03
(A)
Which of the following direct, fused power
connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
A. To the battery using heavy gauge wire
B. To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
C. To the battery using resistor wire
D.
To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
~~
G4E04 (B)
Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver from an automobile's auxiliary power socket?
A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current being drawn by the
transceiver
C.
The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF
transceivers
D. Drawing more than 50
watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
~~
G4E05 (C)
Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75 meter band?
A. “Picket Fencing” signal variation
B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C. The antenna system
D.
FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75 meter band
~~
G4E06 (C)
What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B. Short antennas can only receive vertically polarized signals
C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D. Harmonic radiation may increase
~~
G4E07 (D)
Which of the following is the most likely to cause interfering signals to be
heard in the receiver of an HF mobile installation in a recent model vehicle?
A. The battery charging system
B.
The anti-lock braking system
C. The anti-theft circuitry
D. The vehicle control computer
~~
G4E08
(A)
What is the name of the process by which sunlight
is changed directly into electricity?
A. Photovoltaic
conversion
B. Photon emission
C. Photosynthesis
D. Photon decomposition
~~
G4E09 (B)
What
is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a modern, well-illuminated photovoltaic cell?
A. 0.02 VDC
B. 0.5
VDC
C. 0.2 VDC
D. 1.38 VDC
~~
G4E10 (B)
What is the reason a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged
by the panel?
A. The diode serves to regulate the charging
voltage to prevent overcharge
B. The diode prevents self
discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
C. The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D. The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
~~
G4E11
(C)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of
using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur
equipment
C. A large energy storage system is needed
to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D. All of
these choices are correct
~~
SUBELEMENT G5 – ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups]
G5A
- Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance matching
G5A01 (C)
What is impedance?
A.
The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B. The inverse
of resistance
C. The opposition to the flow of current
in an AC circuit
D. The force of repulsion between two
similar electric fields
~~
G5A02 (B)
What
is reactance?
A. Opposition to the flow of direct current
caused by resistance
B. Opposition to the flow of alternating
current caused by capacitance or inductance
C. A property
of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D. A large spark produced
at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
~~
G5A03 (D)
Which
of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
A. Conductance
B. Reluctance
C. Admittance
D.
Reactance
~~
G5A04 (C)
Which
of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
A. Conductance
B. Reluctance
C. Reactance
D.
Admittance
~~
G5A05 (D)
How does an inductor react to AC?
A. As the
frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
~~
G5A06
(A)
How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
~~
G5A07
(D)
What happens when the impedance of an electrical
load is equal to the internal impedance of the power source?
A.
The source delivers minimum power to the load
B. The
electrical load is shorted
C. No current can flow through
the circuit
D. The source can deliver maximum power to
the load
~~
G5A08 (A)
Why
is impedance matching important?
A. So the source can
deliver maximum power to the load
B. So the load will
draw minimum power from the source
C. To ensure that
there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D.
To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
~~
G5A09 (B)
What unit is used to measure reactance?
A. Farad
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D.
Siemens
~~
G5A10 (B)
What
unit is used to measure impedance?
A. Volt
B. Ohm
C.
Ampere
D. Watt
~~
G5A11
(A)
Which of the following describes one method
of impedance matching between two AC circuits?
A. Insert
an LC network between the two circuits
B. Reduce the
power output of the first circuit
C. Increase the power
output of the first circuit
D. Insert a circulator between
the two circuits
~~
G5A12 (B)
What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
A. To minimize transmitter power output
B.
To maximize the transfer of power
C. To reduce power
supply ripple
D. To minimize radiation resistance
G5A13 (D)
Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
A. A transformer
B.
A Pi-network
C. A length of transmission line
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G5B - The Decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations;
sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations
G5B01 (B)
A
two-times increase or decrease in power results in a change of how many dB?
A. Approximately 2 dB
B. Approximately
3 dB
C. Approximately 6 dB
D. Approximately 12 dB
~~
G5B02 (C)
How
does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a parallel circuit?
A. It equals the average of each branch current
B. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
~~
G5B03
(B)
How many watts of electrical power are used if 400
VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?
A. 0.5 watts
B. 200 watts
C.
400 watts
D. 3200 watts
~~
G5B04
(A)
How many watts of electrical power are used by a
12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
A. 2.4 watts
B. 24 watts
C.
6 watts
D. 60 watts
~~
G5B05
(A)
How many watts are dissipated when a current
of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms?
A. Approximately
61 milliwatts
B. Approximately 61 watts
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
D. Approximately 11 watts
~~
G5B06 (B)
What
is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load connected
to the transmitter output?
A. 1.4 watts
B. 100 watts
C.
353.5 watts
D. 400 watts
~~
G5B07
(C)
Which value of an AC signal results in the
same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
A. The peak-to-peak value
B. The peak
value
C. The RMS value
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value
~~
G5B08 (D)
What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
A. 84.8 volts
B. 169.7 volts
C. 240.0 volts
D. 339.4 volts
~~
G5B09 (B)
What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
A. 8.5 volts
B. 12 volts
C. 24 volts
D. 34 volts
~~
G5B10 (C)
What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of
1 dB?
A. 10.9%
B. 12.2%
C. 20.5%
D. 25.9%
~~
G5B11 (B)
What
is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?
A. .707
B. 1.00
C. 1.414
D.
2.00
~~
G5B12 (B)
What would be the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
A. 173 volts
B. 245
volts
C. 346 volts
D. 692 volts
~~
G5B13
(B)
What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier
if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?
A. 530 watts
B. 1060
watts
C. 1500 watts
D. 2120 watts
~~
G5B14 (B)
What
is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected
to the transmitter output?
A. 8.75 watts
B. 625 watts
C.
2500 watts
D. 5000 watts
~~
G5C – Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers
G5C01
(C)
What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary
winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
A. Capacitive coupling
B.
Displacement current coupling
C. Mutual inductance
D. Mutual capacitance
~~
G5C02 (B)
Which part of a transformer is normally connected to the incoming source of
energy?
A. The secondary
B. The primary
C. The core
D. The plates
~~
G5C03
(B)
Which of the following components should be
added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?
A.
A resistor in parallel
B. A resistor in series
C. A capacitor in series
D. A capacitor in parallel
~~
G5C04 (C)
What is the total resistance of three 100-ohm resistors in parallel?
A. .30 ohms
B. .33 ohms
C. 33.3 ohms
D.
300 ohms
~~
G5C05 (C)
If
three equal value resistors in parallel produce 50 ohms of resistance, and the same three resistors in series produce 450
ohms, what is the value of each resistor?
A. 1500 ohms
B. 90 ohms
C.
150 ohms
D. 175 ohms
~~
G5C06
(C)
What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary
winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
A. 2370 volts
B. 540 volts
C. 26.7 volts
D.
5.9 volts
~~
G5C07 (A)
What
is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having
a 4-ohm impedance?
A. 12.2 to 1
B. 24.4 to 1
C.
150 to 1
D. 300 to 1
~~
G5C08
(D)
What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5000 picofarad
capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
A. 576.9 picofarads
B. 1733 picofarads
C. 3583 picofarads
D. 10750 picofarads
~~
G5C09 (C)
What
is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?
A. .30 microfarads
B. .33 microfarads
C. 33.3 microfarads
D. 300 microfarads
~~
G5C10 (C)
What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
A. .30 Henrys
B. 3.3
Henrys
C. 3.3 millihenrys
D. 30 millihenrys
~~
G5C11 (C)
What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?
A. .07 millihenrys
B. 14.3 millihenrys
C. 70 millihenrys
D. 1000 millihenrys
~~
G5C12 (B)
What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor in series with a 50 microfarad
capacitor?
A. .07 microfarads
B. 14.3 microfarads
C. 70 microfarads
D. 1000 microfarads
~~
G5C13
(C)
Which of the following components should be
added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
A.
An inductor in series
B. A resistor in series
C. A capacitor in parallel
D. A capacitor in series
~~
G5C14 (D)
Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
A. A capacitor in series
B. A resistor in parallel
C. An inductor
in parallel
D. An inductor in series
~~
G5C15
(A)
What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm,
and a 50 ohm resistor in parallel?
A. 5.9 ohms
B. 0.17 ohms
C.
10000 ohms
D. 80 ohms
~~
SUBELEMENT G6 – CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups]
G6A
- Resistors; capacitors; inductors
G6A01 (A)
Which of the following is an important characteristic for capacitors used to filter the DC output of a switching
power supply?
A. Low equivalent series resistance
B. High equivalent series resistance
C. Low Temperature coefficient
D.
High Temperature coefficient
~~
G6A02 (D)
Which of the following types of capacitors are often used in power supply circuits to filter the rectified AC?
A. Disc ceramic
B. Vacuum variable
C. Mica
D. Electrolytic
~~
G6A03 (D)
Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to
other types of capacitors?
A. Tight tolerance
B. High stability
C. High capacitance for given volume
D. Comparatively
low cost
~~
G6A04 (C)
Which
of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
A. Tight tolerance
B. Non-polarized
C. High capacitance for given volume
D. Inexpensive RF capacitor
~~
G6A05 (A)
Which of the following is one effect of lead inductance in a capacitor used at VHF and above?
A. Effective capacitance may be reduced
B. Voltage rating may be reduced
C. ESR may be reduced
D. The polarity of the
capacitor might become reversed
~~
G6A06 (C)
What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?
A. It will change depending on the resistor’s reactance coefficient
B. It will stay the same
C. It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
D. It will become time dependent
~~
G6A07 (B)
Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF
circuit?
A. The resistor's tolerance value would not
be adequate for such a circuit
B. The resistor's inductance
could make circuit performance unpredictable
C. The resistor
could overheat
D. The resistor's internal capacitance
would detune the circuit
~~
G6A08 (B)
Which of the following describes a thermistor?
A.
A resistor that is resistant to changes in value with temperature variations
B. A device having a specific change in resistance with temperature variations
C. A special type of transistor for use at very cold temperatures
D. A capacitor that changes value with temperature
~~
G6A09
(D)
What is an advantage of using a ferrite core
toroidal inductor?
A. Large values of inductance may
be obtained
B. The magnetic properties of the core may
be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C. Most
of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D. All
of these choices are correct
~~
G6A10 (C)
How should the winding axes of solenoid inductors be placed to minimize their mutual inductance?
A. In line
B.
Parallel to each other
C. At right angles
D. Interleaved
~~
G6A11 (B)
Why would it be important to minimize the mutual inductance between two inductors?
A. To increase the energy transfer between circuits
B. To reduce unwanted coupling between circuits
C. To reduce conducted emissions
D.
To increase the self-resonant frequency of the inductors
~~
G6A12 (D)
What is a common name for an inductor used to help smooth the DC output from the rectifier in a conventional power
supply?
A. Back EMF choke
B. Repulsion coil
C.
Charging inductor
D. Filter choke
~~
G6A13
(B)
What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance
in an inductor?
A. The magnetic field may become inverted
B. The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies
C. The permeability will increase
D. The voltage rating may be exceeded
~~
G6B - Rectifiers; solid state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries
G6B01
(C)
What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a rectifier?
A. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the conducting direction
B. 1.4 times the AC frequency
C. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non-conducting direction
D. 2.8 times the AC frequency
~~
G6B02
(A)
What are two major ratings that must not be
exceeded for silicon diode rectifiers?
A. Peak inverse
voltage; average forward current
B. Average power; average
voltage
C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage
D. Peak load impedance; peak voltage
~~
G6B03
(B)
What is the approximate junction threshold
voltage of a germanium diode?
A. 0.1 volt
B. 0.3 volts
C.
0.7 volts
D. 1.0 volts
~~
G6B04
(C)
When two or more diodes are connected in parallel
to increase current handling capacity, what is the purpose of the resistor connected in series with each diode?
A. To ensure the thermal stability of the power supply
B. To regulate the power supply output voltage
C. To ensure that one diode doesn't carry most of the current
D. To act as an inductor
~~
G6B05 (C)
What
is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?
A. 0.1 volt
B. 0.3 volts
C. 0.7 volts
D.
1.0 volts
~~
G6B06 (A)
Which
of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit as compared to a standard silicon diode?
A. Lower capacitance
B. Lower inductance
C. Longer switching times
D. Higher breakdown voltage
~~
G6B07 (A)
What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch
in a logic circuit?
A. Its saturation and cut-off regions
B. Its active region (between the cut-off and saturation regions)
C. Its peak and valley current points
D. Its enhancement and deletion modes
~~
G6B08 (D)
Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?
A. To increase the beta of the transistor
B. To improve the power dissipation capability
C. To reduce stray capacitance
D.
To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
~~
G6B09 (B)
Which
of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
A.
The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B. The gate
is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
C.
The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
~~
G6B10 (A)
Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons
between cathode and plate?
A. Control grid
B. Heater
C.
Screen Grid
D. Trigger electrode
~~
G6B11 (B)
Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
A. A bipolar transistor
B. A Field Effect Transistor
C. A tunnel
diode
D. A varistor
~~
G6B12
(A)
What is the primary purpose of a screen grid
in a vacuum tube?
A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B. To increase efficiency
C. To increase the control grid resistance
D.
To decrease plate resistance
~~
G6B13 (B)
What
is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?
A. Long life
B. High discharge
current
C. High voltage
D. Rapid recharge
~~
G6B14 (C)
What
is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?
A. 6 volts
B.
8.5 volts
C. 10.5 volts
D. 12 volts
~~
G6B15 (D)
When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?
A. As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt
B. When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period
C. When a constant current charger is used
D. Never
~~
G6C - Analog and digital integrated circuits (IC’s); microprocessors;
memory; I/O devices; microwave IC’s (MMIC’s ); display devices
G6C01 (D)
Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?
A. NAND Gate
B.
Microprocessor
C. Frequency Counter
D. Linear voltage regulator
~~
G6C02 (B)
What is meant by the term MMIC?
A. Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
B.
Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C. Military-specification
Manufactured Integrated Circuit
D. Mode Modulated Integrated
Circuit
~~
G6C03 (A)
Which
of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
A. Low power consumption
B.
High power handling capability
C. Better suited for RF
amplification
D. Better suited for power supply regulation
~~
G6C04
(B)
What is meant by the term ROM?
A. Resistor Operated Memory
B. Read Only Memory
C. Random Operational
Memory
D. Resistant to Overload Memory
~~
G6C05
(C)
What is meant when memory is characterized as “non-volatile”?
A. It is resistant to radiation damage
B. It is resistant to high temperatures
C. The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
D. The stored information cannot be changed once written
~~
G6C06
(D)
Which of the following describes an integrated
circuit operational amplifier?
A. Digital
B. MMIC
C.
Programmable Logic
D. Analog
~~
G6C07
(D)
What is one disadvantage of an incandescent indicator
compared to an LED?
A. Low power consumption
B. High speed
C.
Long life
D. High power consumption
~~
G6C08
(D)
How is an LED biased when emitting light?
A. Beyond cutoff
B. At the Zener voltage
C. Reverse Biased
D. Forward Biased
~~
G6C09 (A)
Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?
A. It requires ambient or back lighting
B. It offers a wide dynamic range
C. It has a wide viewing angle
D. All of these
choices are correct
~~
G6C10 (A)
What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
A. Computer and transceiver
B. Microphone and transceiver
C. Amplifier and
antenna
D. Power supply and amplifier
~~
G6C11
(B)
What is a microprocessor?
A. A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
B. A computer on a single integrated circuit
C. A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit
D. A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage
~~
G6C12
(D)
Which of the following connectors would be
a good choice for a serial data port?
A. PL-259
B. Type N
C.
Type SMA
D. DE-9
~~
G6C13
(C)
Which of these connector types is commonly
used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?
A.
Octal
B. RJ-11
C. PL-259
D. DB-25
~~
G6C14
(C)
Which of these connector types is commonly
used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?
A.
PL-259
B. BNC
C. RCA Phono
D. Type
N
~~
G6C15 (B)
What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
A. Prevention of use by unauthorized persons
B. Reduced chance of incorrect mating
C.
Higher current carrying capacity
D. All of these choices
are correct
~~
G6C16 (A)
Which of the following describes a type-N connector?
A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
C. A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
D. An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
~~
G6C17
(C)
What is the general description of a DIN type
connector?
A. A special connector for microwave interfacing
B. A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
C. A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
D. A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
~~
G6C18
(B)
What is a type SMA connector?
A. A large bayonet-type connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
B. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
~~
G7 – PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups]
G7A Power supplies; and schematic symbols
G7A01 (B)
What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?
A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B. It discharges the filter capacitors
C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D. It eliminates ground-loop current
~~
G7A02 (D)
Which of the following components are used in a power-supply filter network?
A. Diodes
B. Transformers
and transducers
C. Quartz crystals
D. Capacitors and inductors
~~
G7A03 (D)
What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge
power supply?
A. One-quarter the normal output voltage
of the power supply
B. Half the normal output voltage
of the power supply
C. Double the normal peak output
voltage of the power supply
D. Equal to the normal peak
output voltage of the power supply
~~
G7A04 (D)
What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
A. One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B. One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D. Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
~~
G7A05
(B)
What portion of the AC cycle is converted to
DC by a half-wave rectifier?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C.
270 degrees
D. 360 degrees
~~
G7A06
(D)
What portion of the AC cycle is converted to
DC by a full-wave rectifier?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C.
270 degrees
D. 360 degrees
~~
G7A07
(A)
What is the output waveform of an unfiltered
full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
A.
A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B.
A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C.
A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D.
A steady DC voltage
~~
G7A08(C)
Which
of the following is an advantage of a switch-mode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B. Fewer circuit components are required
C. High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G7A09
(C)
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field
effect transistor?
A. Symbol 2
B. Symbol 5
C.
Symbol 1
D. Symbol 4
~~
G7A10
(D)
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener
diode?
A. Symbol 4
B. Symbol 1
C. Symbol
11
D. Symbol 5
~~
G7A11
(B)
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN
junction transistor?
A. Symbol 1
B. Symbol 2
C.
Symbol 7
D. Symbol 11
~~
G7A12
(C)
Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding
transformer?
A. Symbol 4
B. Symbol 7
C. Symbol
6
D. Symbol 1
~~
G7A13
(A)
Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped
inductor?
A. Symbol 7
B. Symbol 11
C. Symbol
6
D. Symbol 1
~~
G7B - Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators
G7B01
(A)
Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced
by what type of integrated circuit?
A. Microcontroller
B. Charge-coupled device
C. Phase detector
D. Window comparator
~~
G7B02
(A)
Which of the following is an advantage of using
the binary system when processing digital signals?
A.
Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent with an "on" or "off" state
B. The binary number system is most accurate
C. Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G7B03 (B)
Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?
A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D. Output is low only when both inputs are high
~~
G7B04 (C)
Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?
A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D. Output is low only when both inputs are high
~~
G7B05
(C)
How many states does a 3-bit binary counter
have?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
~~
G7B06 (A)
What
is a shift register?
A. A clocked array of circuits that
passes data in steps along the array
B. An array of operational
amplifiers used for tri state arithmetic operations
C.
A digital mixer
D. An analog mixer
~~
G7B07
(D)
What are the basic components of virtually
all sine wave oscillators?
A. An amplifier and a divider
B. A frequency multiplier and a mixer
C. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
~~
G7B08
(B)
How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier
determined?
A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output
power
B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power
~~
G7B09
(C)
What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
A. The number of stages in the counter
B. The number of stages in the divider
C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D. The time delay of the lag circuit
~~
G7B10 (D)
Which
of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?
A.
Low standby power
B. High Efficiency
C. No need for bias
D. Low distortion
~~
G7B11 (B)
For
which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
A. SSB
B.
CW
C. AM
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G7B12 (D)
Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
A. Class A
B.
Class B
C. Class AB
D. Class C
~~
G7B13 (B)
What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?
A. To limit the modulation index
B. To eliminate self-oscillations
C. To cut
off the final amplifier during standby periods
D. To
keep the carrier on frequency
~~
G7B14 (B)
Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
~~
G7C - Receivers and transmitters; filters, oscillators
G7C01
(B)
Which of the following is used to process signals
from the balanced modulator and send them to the mixer in a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. Carrier oscillator
B. Filter
C. IF amplifier
D. RF amplifier
~~
G7C02 (D)
Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech
amplifier and send the result to the filter in a typical single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. Discriminator
B.
Detector
C. IF amplifier
D. Balanced modulator
~~
G7C03 (C)
What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator and send the result to the IF
filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
A. Balanced modulator
B. IF amplifier
C. Mixer
D. Detector
~~
G7C04
(D)
What circuit is used to combine signals from
the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in a single-sideband receiver?
A. RF oscillator
B.
IF filter
C. Balanced modulator
D. Product detector
~~
G7C05 (D)
Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct
digital synthesizer (DDS)?
A. Wide tuning range and no
need for band switching
B. Relatively high power output
C. Relatively low power consumption
D. Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
~~
G7C06
(B)
What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter
as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
A. Substantially higher
B.
About the same
C. Substantially lower
D. Twice the transmission line impedance
~~
G7C07
(C)
What is the simplest combination of stages that implement
a superheterodyne receiver?
A. RF amplifier, detector,
audio amplifier
B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
C. HF oscillator, mixer, detector
D. HF oscillator, pre-scaler, audio amplifier
~~
G7C08 (D)
What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming
from the IF amplifier to audio?
A. Product detector
B. Phase inverter
C. Mixer
D. Discriminator
~~
G7C09
(D)
Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal
Processor IF filter?
A. An analog to digital converter
B. A digital to analog converter
C. A digital processor chip
D.
All of the these choices are correct
~~
G7C10 (B)
How
is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?
A.
By using direct signal phasing
B. By converting the signal
from analog to digital and using digital processing
C.
By differential spurious phasing
D. By converting the
signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
~~
G7C11 (A)
What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by
software
B. A radio which provides computer interface
for automatic logging of band and frequency
C. A radio
which uses crystal filters designed using software
D.
A computer model which can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
~~
SUBELEMENT
G8 – SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups]
G8A - Carriers and modulation: AM;
FM; single and double sideband; modulation envelope; overmodulation
G8A01 (D)
What is the name of the process that changes the envelope of an RF wave to carry information?
A. Phase modulation
B. Frequency modulation
C. Spread spectrum modulation
D. Amplitude modulation
~~
G8A02 (B)
What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to
convey information?
A. Phase convolution
B. Phase modulation
C. Angle convolution
D. Radian inversion
~~
G8A03
(D)
What is the name of the process which changes the
frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
A. Frequency
convolution
B. Frequency transformation
C. Frequency conversion
D. Frequency modulation
~~
G8A04 (B)
What
emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?
A. Multiplex modulation
B. Phase
modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Pulse modulation
~~
G8A05 (D)
What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
A. Frequency shift keying
B. Pulse position modulation
C. Frequency
modulation
D. Amplitude modulation
~~
G8A06
(C)
What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a
single-sideband phone transmission?
A. Audio fidelity
is improved
B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable
with lower distortion
C. The available transmitter power
can be used more effectively
D. Simpler receiving equipment
can be used
~~
G8A07 (A)
Which
of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?
A. Single sideband
B. Double sideband
C. Phase modulation
D. Frequency modulation
~~
G8A08 (D)
Which
of the following is an effect of over-modulation?
A.
Insufficient audio
B. Insufficient bandwidth
C. Frequency drift
D. Excessive bandwidth
~~
G8A09 (B)
What
control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?
A. The RF clipping level
B.
Transmit audio or microphone gain
C. Antenna inductance
or capacitance
D. Attenuator level
~~
G8A10
(C)
What is meant by flat-topping of a single-sideband
phone transmission?
A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient
collector current
B. The transmitter's automatic level
control is properly adjusted
C. Signal distortion caused
by excessive drive
D. The transmitter's carrier is properly
suppressed
~~
G8A11 (A)
What happens to the RF carrier signal when a modulating audio signal is applied
to an FM transmitter?
A. The carrier frequency changes
proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal
B. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the amplitude and frequency of the modulating signal
C. The carrier amplitude changes proportionally to the instantaneous frequency
of the modulating signal
D. The carrier phase changes
proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal
~~
G8A12 (A)
What signal(s) would be found at the output of a properly adjusted balanced
modulator?
A. Both upper and lower sidebands
B. Either upper or lower sideband, but not both
C. Both upper and lower sidebands and the carrier
D. The modulating signal and the unmodulated carrier
~~
G8B - Frequency mixing; multiplication; HF data communications; bandwidths of
various modes; deviation
G8B01 (A)
What
receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency
(IF) signal?
A. Mixer
B. BFO
C. VFO
D. Discriminator
~~
G8B02 (B)
If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce
a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
A. Quadrature noise
B. Image response
C. Mixer interference
D. Intermediate interference
~~
G8B03 (A)
What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?
A. Heterodyning
B. Synthesizing
C. Cancellation
D. Phase inverting
~~
G8B04 (D)
What is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic
of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
A. Mixer
B. Reactance modulator
C. Pre-emphasis network
D. Multiplier
~~
G8B05 (C)
Why
isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5 MHz?
A.
The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low
B. Harmonics
could not be attenuated to practical levels
C. The wide
bandwidth is prohibited by FCC rules
D. The frequency
stability would not be adequate
~~
G8B06 (D)
What
is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission having a 5 kHz
deviation and a 3 kHz modulating frequency?
A.
3 kHz
B. 5 kHz
C. 8 kHz
D. 16 kHz
~~
G8B07
(B)
What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated
oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FM-phone transmitter?
A. 101.75 Hz
B. 416.7 Hz
C. 5 kHz
D.
60 kHz
~~
G8B08 (B)
Why
is it important to know the duty cycle of the data mode you are using when transmitting?
A. To aid in tuning your transmitter
B. Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G8B09
(D)
Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the
bandwidth of the operating mode?
A. It is required by
FCC rules
B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D. It results in the best signal to noise ratio
~~
G8B10
(A)
What does the number 31 represent in PSK31?
A. The approximate transmitted symbol rate
B. The version of the PSK protocol
C. The year in which PSK31 was invented
D.
The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
~~
G8B11 (C)
How
does forward error correction allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?
A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B. By using the varicode character set
C. By transmitting redundant information with the data
D. By using a parity bit with each character
~~
G8B12 (B)
What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B. Higher symbol rates require higher bandwidth
C. Lower symbol rates require higher bandwidth
D. Bandwidth is constant for data mode signals
~~
SUBELEMENT G9 –
ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [4 Exam Questions – 4 Groups]
G9A
- Antenna feed lines: characteristic impedance, and attenuation; SWR calculation, measurement and effects; matching networks
G9A01
(A)
Which of the following factors determine the characteristic
impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
A.
The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the
conductors
B. The distance between the
centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C.
The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D.
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
~~
G9A02 (B)
What
are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
A. 25 and 30 ohms
B. 50 and 75 ohms
C. 80 and 100 ohms
D. 500 and 750 ohms
~~
G9A03 (D)
What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?
A. 50 ohms
B.
75 ohms
C. 100 ohms
D. 300 ohms
~~
G9A04 (C)
What
is the reason for the occurrence of reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?
A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C. A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance
D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
~~
G9A05
(B)
How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change
as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?
A.
It is independent of frequency
B. It increases
C. It decreases
D. It reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
~~
G9A06 (D)
In
what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
A.
ohms per 1000 ft
B. dB per 1000 ft
C. ohms per 100 ft
D. dB per 100 ft
~~
G9A07 (D)
What
must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?
A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B. The feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C. The feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance
of the feed line
~~
G9A08 (B)
If
the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1
to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?
A.
1 to 1
B. 5 to 1
C. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
~~
G9A09
(A)
What standing wave ratio will result from the connection
of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 200-ohm impedance?
A. 4:1
B. 1:4
C. 2:1
D.
1:2
~~
G9A10 (D)
What
standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 10-ohm impedance?
A. 2:1
B.
50:1
C. 1:5
D. 5:1
~~
G9A11
(B)
What standing wave ratio will result from the connection
of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 50-ohm impedance?
A. 2:1
B. 1:1
C. 50:50
D.
0:0
~~
G9A12 (A)
What
would be the SWR if you feed a vertical antenna that has a 25-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
A. 2:1
B.
2.5:1
C. 1.25:1
D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
~~
G9A13
(C)
What would be the SWR if you feed an antenna that
has a 300-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
A. 1.5:1
B. 3:1
C. 6:1
D. You cannot
determine SWR from impedance values
~~
G9B
- Basic antennas
G9B01 (B)
What is one
disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire antenna?
A.
It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B. You may
experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation
D. It is not effective on the higher HF bands
~~
G9B02
(D)
What is an advantage of downward sloping radials
on a quarter wave ground-plane antenna?
A. They lower
the radiation angle
B. They bring the feed-point impedance
closer to 300 ohms
C. They increase the radiation angle
D. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms
~~
G9B03
(B)
What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane
antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
A. It decreases
B. It increases
C. It stays the same
D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
~~
G9B04 (A)
What
is the low angle azimuthal radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole antenna installed 1/2 wavelength high and
parallel to the Earth?
A. It is a figure-eight at right
angles to the antenna
B. It is a figure-eight off both
ends of the antenna
C. It is a circle (equal radiation
in all directions)
D. It has a pair of lobes on one side
of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
~~
G9B05 (C)
How
does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of
the wire is eliminated
~~
G9B06 (C)
Where
should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?
A. As high as possible above the ground
B. Parallel to the antenna element
C. On the
surface or buried a few inches below the ground
D. At
the top of the antenna
~~
G9B07 (B)
How
does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered from 1/4 wave above ground?
A. It steadily increases
B. It steadily decreases
C. It peaks
at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D. It is unaffected
by the height above ground
~~
G9B08 (A)
How
does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed-point location is moved from the center toward the ends?
A. It steadily increases
B. It steadily decreases
C. It peaks
at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D. It is unaffected
by the location of the feed point
~~
G9B09 (A)
Which
of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to vertically polarized HF antenna?
A. Lower ground reflection losses
B. Lower feed-point impedance
C.
Shorter Radials
D. Lower radiation resistance
~~
G9B10
(D)
What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole
antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?
A. 8 feet
B. 16 feet
C.
24 feet
D. 32 feet
~~
G9B11
(C)
What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole
antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
A. 42 feet
B. 84 feet
C.
131 feet
D. 263 feet
~~
G9B12
(A)
What is the approximate length for a 1/4-wave vertical
antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
A. 8 feet
B. 11 feet
C.
16 feet
D. 21 feet
~~
G9C - Directional antennas
G9C01 (A)
Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
A. Larger diameter elements
B. Closer element spacing
C. Loading
coils in series with the element
D. Tapered-diameter
elements
~~
G9C02 (B)
What
is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
A. 1/4 wavelength
B. 1/2 wavelength
C. 3/4 wavelength
D. 1 wavelength
~~
G9C03 (B)
Which
statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
A. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
B. The director is normally the shortest parasitic element
C. The driven element is the longest parasitic element
D. Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth
~~
G9C04 (A)
Which statement about a three-element; single-band Yagi antenna is true?
A. The reflector is normally the longest parasitic element
B. The director is normally the longest parasitic element
C. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
D. All of the elements must be the same length
~~
G9C05
(A)
How does increasing boom length and adding
directors affect a Yagi antenna?
A. Gain increases
B. Beamwidth increases
C. Weight decreases
D. Wind load decreases
~~
G9C06
(C)
Which of the following is a reason why a Yagi antenna
is often used for radio communications on the 20 meter band?
A.
It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane
B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna
C. It helps reduce interference from other stations to the side or behind the
antenna
D. It provides the highest possible angle of
radiation for the HF bands
~~
G9C07 (C)
What
does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated
in exactly the opposite direction
D. The ratio of forward
gain to dipole gain
~~
G9C08 (D)
What
is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?
A.
The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B.
The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C.
The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
~~
G9C09
(A)
What is the approximate maximum theoretical
forward gain of a three element, single-band Yagi antenna?
A.
9.7 dBi
B. 9.7 dBd
C. 5.4 times the gain of a dipole
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G9C10 (D)
Which
of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or
SWR bandwidth?
A. The physical length of the boom
B. The number of elements on the boom
C. The spacing of each element along the boom
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G9C11 (A)
What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?
A. To match the relatively low feed-point impedance to 50 ohms
B. To match the relatively high feed-point impedance to 50 ohms
C. To increase the front to back ratio
D. To increase the main lobe gain
~~
G9C12 (A)
Which
of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50-ohm coax feed line?
A. It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G9C13 (A)
Approximately
how long is each side of a quad antenna driven element?
A.
1/4 wavelength
B. 1/2 wavelength
C. 3/4 wavelength
D. 1 wavelength
~~
G9C14 (B)
How
does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?
A. About 2/3 as much
B. About the same
C. About 1.5 times as much
D. About twice as much
~~
G9C15 (B)
Approximately how long is each side of a quad antenna reflector element?
A. Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B. Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
C. Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
D. Slightly
more than 1/2 wavelength
~~
G9C16 (D)
How
does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?
A. 3 dB higher
B. 3
dB lower
C. 2.54 dB higher
D. About the same
~~
G9C17 (B)
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?
A. 1/4 wavelength
B. 1/3 wavelength
C. 1/2 wavelength
D. 2/3 wavelength
~~
G9C18 (A)
What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna is changed from the center of either horizontal wire to the center
of either vertical wire?
A. The polarization of the radiated
signal changes from horizontal to vertical
B. The polarization
of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal
C.
The direction of the main lobe is reversed
D. The radiated
signal changes to an omnidirectional pattern
~~
G9C19 (D)
What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna,
assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?
A.
The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
B.
The driven element must be open-circuited on the side opposite the feed point
C. The reflector element must be approximately 5% shorter than the driven element
D. The reflector element must be approximately 5% longer than the driven element
~~
G9C20
(B)
How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally
polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?
A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B. Approximately 3 dB higher
C.
Approximately 6 dB higher
D. Approximately 9 dB higher
~~
G9D
- Specialized antennas
G9D01 (D)
What does
the term "NVIS" mean as related to antennas?
A. Nearly
Vertical Inductance System
B. Non-Visible Installation
Specification
C. Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
D. Near Vertical Incidence Sky wave
~~
G9D02
(B)
Which of the following is an advantage of
an NVIS antenna?
A. Low vertical angle radiation for
working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
B. High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C. High forward gain
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G9D03 (D)
At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
A. As close to one-half wave as possible
B. As close to one wavelength as possible
C.
Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
~~
G9D04 (A)
What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?
A.
To permit multiband operation
B. To notch spurious frequencies
C. To provide balanced feed-point impedance
D. To prevent out of band operation
~~
G9D05 (D)
What is the advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
A. Allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B. Allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C. Narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D. Narrows the main lobe in elevation
~~
G9D06 (A)
Which
of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
A.
Wide bandwidth
B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi
antenna
C. Harmonic suppression
D. Polarization diversity
~~
G9D07 (A)
Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?
A. Length and spacing of the elements increases logarithmically from one end
of the boom to the other
B. Impedance varies periodically
as a function of frequency
C. Gain varies logarithmically
as a function of frequency
D. SWR varies periodically
as a function of boom length
~~
G9D08 (B)
Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?
A. Its impedance is too low for effective matching
B.
It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
C.
It has poor directivity
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G9D09
(B)
Which of the following is an application
for a Beverage antenna?
A. Directional transmitting for
low HF bands
B. Directional receiving for low HF bands
C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
~~
G9D10
(D)
Which of the following describes a Beverage
antenna?
A. A vertical antenna constructed from beverage
cans
B. A broad-band mobile antenna
C. A helical antenna for space reception
D. A very long and low directional receiving antenna
~~
G9D11
(D)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband
antennas?
A. They present low impedance on all design
frequencies
B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
C. They must be fed with open wire line
D. They have poor harmonic rejection
~~
SUBELEMENT G0 – ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETY [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups]
G0A
- RF safety principles, rules and guidelines; routine station evaluation
G0A01 (A)
What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
A. It heats body tissue
B. It causes radiation poisoning
C. It
causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
D.
It cools body tissue
~~
G0A02 (D)
Which
of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
A. Its duty cycle
B. Its frequency
C. Its power density
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G0A03
(D) [97.13(c)(1)]
How can you determine that your station
complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
A. By calculation
based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B. By calculation based
on computer modeling
C. By measurement of field strength
using calibrated equipment
D. All of these choices are
correct
~~
G0A04 (D)
What
does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?
A. The average time of day when the exposure occurs
B.
The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C. The total time of the exposure
D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
~~
G0A05 (A)
What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from
your station exceeds permissible limits?
A. Take action
to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B.
File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
C.
Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G0A06 (C)
Question withdrawn by QPC 2/22/2011
Which transmitter(s)
at a multiple user site is/are responsible for RF safety compliance?
A. Only the most powerful transmitter on site
B. All transmitters on site, regardless of their power level or duty cycle
C. Any transmitter that contributes 5% or more of the MPE
D. Only those that operate at more than 50% duty cycle
~~
G0A07
(A)
What effect does transmitter duty cycle have
when evaluating RF exposure?
A. A lower transmitter
duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B.
A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
~~
G0A08
(C)
Which of the following steps must an amateur
operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in part 97.13?
A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97 in the station
B. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G0A09
(B)
What type of instrument can be used to accurately
measure an RF field?
A. A receiver with an S meter
B. A calibrated field-strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C. A betascope with a dummy antenna calibrated at 50 ohms
D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
~~
G0A10
(D)
What is one thing that can be done if evaluation
shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
A. Change from horizontal polarization to vertical polarization
B. Change from horizontal polarization to circular polarization
C. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
~~
G0A11
(C)
What precaution should you take if you install an
indoor transmitting antenna?
A. Locate the antenna close
to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B.
Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
D. No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used
~~
G0A12
(B)
What precaution should you take whenever you
make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?
A. Ensure
that you and the antenna structure are grounded
B. Turn
off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
C. Wear
a radiation badge
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G0A13
(D)
What precaution should be taken when installing a
ground-mounted antenna?
A. It should not be installed
higher than you can reach
B. It should not be installed
in a wet area
C. It should limited to 10 feet in height
D. It should be installed so no one can be exposed to RF radiation in excess
of maximum permissible limits
~~
G0B
- Safety in the ham shack: electrical shock and treatment, safety grounding, fusing, interlocks, wiring, antenna and tower
safety
G0B01 (A)
Which wire or wires
in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240-VAC single-phase
source?
A. Only the hot wires
B. Only the neutral wire
C. Only the ground wire
D. All wires
~~
G0B02
(C)
What is the minimum wire size that may be safely
used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?
A. AWG number 20
B. AWG number 16
C. AWG number 12
D. AWG number 8
~~
G0B03 (D)
Which
size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
A. 100 amperes
B.
60 amperes
C. 30 amperes
D. 15 amperes
~~
G0B04 (A)
Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?
A. Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Danger of engine over torque
C. Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
D.
Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
~~
G0B05 (B)
Which
of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line
power to a device?
A. Current flowing from one or more
of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B. Current flowing
from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
C.
Over-voltage on the hot wire
D. All of these choices
are correct
~~
G0B06 (D)
Why
must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?
A. It prevents blowing of fuses in case of an internal short circuit
B. It prevents signal overload
C.
It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D. It ensures
that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
~~
G0B07 (B)
Which
of the following should be observed for safety when climbing on a tower using a safety belt or harness?
A. Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
B. Always attach the belt safety hook to the belt D-ring with the hook opening
away from the tower
C. Ensure that all heavy tools are
securely fastened to the belt D-ring
D. Make sure that
your belt is grounded at all times
~~
G0B08 (B)
What
should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?
A. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and
tagged
C. Unground the base of the tower
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G0B09
(D)
Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires
that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
A.
The resistance of solder is too high
B. Solder flux will
prevent a low conductivity connection
C. Solder has too
high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
~~
G0B10
(A)
Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin
solder?
A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not
washed carefully after handling
B. High voltages can
cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C. Tin
in the solder can “cold flow” causing shorts in the circuit
D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
~~
G0B11 (D)
Which of the following is good engineering practice for lightning protection
grounds?
A. They must be bonded to all buried water and
gas lines
B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close
as possible to a right angle
C. Lightning grounds must
be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D. They must be
bonded together with all other grounds
~~
G0B12 (C)
What
is the purpose of a transmitter power supply interlock?
A.
To prevent unauthorized access to a transmitter
B. To
guarantee that you cannot accidentally transmit out of band
C.
To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D. To shut off the transmitter if too much current is drawn
~~
G0B13
(A)
What must you do when powering your house from an
emergency generator?
A. Disconnect the incoming utility
power feed
B. Insure that the generator is not grounded
C. Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G0B14
(C)
Which of the following is covered by the National
Electrical Code?
A. Acceptable bandwidth limits
B. Acceptable modulation limits
C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack
D. RF exposure limits of the human body
~~
G0B15 (A)
Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?
A. The generator should be located in a well ventilated area
B. The generator should be insulated from ground
C. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
G0B16
(C)
When might a lead acid storage battery give
off explosive hydrogen gas?
A. When stored for long periods
of time
B. When being discharged
C. When being charged
D. When not placed on a level surface
~~
2011-2015
Element 3 Figure G7-1
Revised 2-22-2011 Figure G7-1 was
replaced to correct schematic error in which the varactor diode (item 4) was shown reversed. (See new G7-1 files on
the website: www.ncvec.org for additional formats available for download.)
~~
End of Pool ~~
